9 Comments
Apr 23Liked by Classical Wisdom

If you have an accepted and acknowledged truth is it of nature, or of man? If of man is it not based upon his knowledge of that truth he perceives to be true in nature?

Expand full comment
Apr 19Liked by Classical Wisdom

I stumbled over the author's habit to use a generic femininum instead of a generic masculinum. This is not the established use of the language and therefore not a preferable decision. It also cannot be seen why a generic femininum is better than a generic masculinum. It just turns the situation on its head. But even worse: While the generic masculinum is established and therefore automatically known to be gender-neutral, though there is a small bias in favour of men, this automtic effect falls apart with the non-established generic femininum, so that it is not read as a generic femininum, which is certainly a loss and not a gain of gender-neutrality. Last but not least, the method was not applied consequently. "Midwife" was not turned on its head to "midhusband", although necessary, if you want to stay true to the principle. I hope I could bring some sun into the cave of weird language usage.

Expand full comment

Great post!

Expand full comment
Apr 19Liked by Classical Wisdom

As always, the answer remains: only the Truth is true.

Expand full comment